CCNP Frequently Asked Questions

By admin - Last updated: Wednesday, March 3, 2010

CCNP Frequently Asked Questions
Cisco Revises its CCNP® Certification:Cisco has updated its Cisco CCNP® certification for network engineers through a comprehensive process involving customers and partners from around the globe. The revision focuses on the competencies that are needed to plan, implement, verify and troubleshoot routed and switched networks and is designed to be more predictive of job readiness. CCNP offers a career development path for Cisco CCNA® certified network engineers and a solid foundation for those who are interested in Cisco CCIE®.

Frequently Asked Questions
Q: What is being revised in the CCNP certification?
A: The revised CCNP certification has three required exams: ROUTE #642-902, which covers IP routing; SWITCH #642-813, which covers switched networks; and TSHOOT #642-832, which covers maintenance and troubleshooting of IP networks. All three exams will be increased to 120 minutes in length in order to adequately cover the required knowledge and skills. Please note that the current COMP exam #642-892 will be retired on July 31, 2010 and will not be replaced.
Q: What is being changed on the CCNP exams? What percentage of the topics are new?
A. The certification expectations that are validated on the CCNP exams have been revised to align with the job-role expectations of network engineers at the professional level. Candidates can view a list of the exam topics by clicking the selected exam at CCNP on the Cisco Learning Network. Cisco does not release information on the percentage or number of questions on specific exam topics; candidates should be prepared to answer questions on all of the topics that are listed.
Q: Now that the revised CCNP has been announced, can I still take the previous CCNP exams? How long will they be valid?
A: The last day for candidates to take the BSCI, BCMSN, ISCW, and ONT exams will be July 31, 2010. Candidates who pass the BSCI and BCMSN exams will be able to apply those exams toward CCNP certification as long as their score is valid-within three years from the date of the exam. Please note that no direct replacements are being developed for the ISCW and ONT exams, and passing scores on these exams will be accepted only until July 31, 2010. Candidates for CCNP who do not complete all of their certification by July 31, 2010 will be required to pass the TSHOOT exam #642-832 to meet the requirements for certification.
Q: What if I have completed one or more of the previous CCNP exams? Can I still count those exams toward my certification?
A. The table below lists all of the valid ways to become certified. Note the expiration date of the options using ISCW and ONT. Candidates who are in the process of obtaining their CCNP, and who wish to certify before the new TSHOOT exam becomes required, must pass all of the required exams on or before July 31, 2010. After July 31, 2010, all CCNP candidates will be required to pass the TSHOOT exam.Information on the mix-and-match options for Cisco CCDP® and Cisco CCIP® are also included, as they require routing and switching skills, as well.

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Q. The CCIP certification requires the BSCI exam. The CCDP certification requires the BSCI and BCMSN exams. Will these exams still be available for CCIP and CCDP candidates?
A. No, the BSCI and BCMSN exams will be retired and replaced with the ROUTE and SWITCH exams, respectively, in all related Cisco certifications. Students who are working toward their CCIP or CCDP certifications should refer to the mix-and-match tables above for further information.
Q. Is there a specific order that the exams need to be taken for the new CCNP?
A. The exams may be taken in any order, but the recommended order for the courses is to take ROUTE and SWITCH before the TSHOOT course, which incorporates the knowledge from ROUTE and SWITCH into the lab scenarios that are used for course work.
Q: What is being changed in the routing exam and course?
A: The CCNP routing course (Implementing Cisco IP Routing) and 642-9032 ROUTE exam now cover these additional topics:
• Configuring EIGRP across HDLC, Frame Relay, MPLS, VPN, and MPLS virtual circuits
• Configuring OSPF over HDLC, Frame Relay, PPT, and over different WAN links
• Implementing alternate routing path control
• Implementing IPv
• Analyzing branch office network designs and planning installation
• Analyzing designs to support mobile workers and planning network modifications.
Q: What is being changed in the switching exam and course?
A: The CCNP switching course (Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks) and 642-813 SWITCH exam now cover these additional topics:
• Implementing Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) and 802.1W Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
• Implementing network monitoring in a highly available network
• Integrating the latest WLAN devices into the campus infrastructure
Q: What is the CCNP TSHOOT beta exam? Does it count toward CCNP certification?
A: The TSHOOT beta is an early release of the TSHOOT certification exam, which is used to determine the predictive ability of the exam questions. It is the same length and covers the same topics as the final exam. Candidates who pass a beta exam receive full credit, however scores on beta exams are not immediately available. Candidates must wait six to eight weeks, until the beta analysis is complete, to receive their scores. The TSHOOT beta exam will be released sometime around February 16 and be available through March 26, 2010 at a discounted price of $50 USD. As an incentive to schedule, the first 150 beta exams completed will be provided free of charge. Candidates may attempt a beta exam only one time. Scores are expected to be released in mid April.

Q: Which question formats will the CCNP exams include?
A: Candidates will see a variety of question formats on the new CCNP exams. The question formats will include traditional multiple-choice questions, drag-and-drop type questions, and simulation questions.
Q: If I take the new CCNP courses in routing (ROUTE) or switching (SWITCH) before the new exams are released, can I take the current exams?
A: Students who take the new and updated routing course (ROUTE) or the new and updated switching course (SWITCH) will still be allowed to take the existing BSCI (routing) and BCMSN (switching) exams until July 31, 2010. The new ROUTE and SWITCH exams are scheduled to be released in mid-March of 2010, and the TSHOOT exam is scheduled to be released in April of 2010. Because the new courses go into more depth than the existing courses, students should be well prepared to take the existing exams and achieve certification.
Q: What happens if I have already passed some of the current CCNP requirements? Which of the new exams do I need to take?
A: You will have until July 31, 2010 to complete the current series of CCNP exams to achieve certification. As of August 1, 2010, the BSCI, BCMSN, ISCW, and ONT exams will be retired. Note that no replacements are being developed for the ISCW and ONT exams. Because of the similarity of topics, candidates who have a valid passing score on BSCI will not be required to take the ROUTE exam, and those who have a valid passing score on BCMSN will not be required to take the SWITCH exam. However, candidates who have not passed the ISCW and ONT exams by July 31, 2010 will need to pass the TSHOOT exam to achieve CCNP certification. Please refer to the online table for your specific situation located on the CCNP home page off Cisco.com.
Q: I have passed only the ISCW or ONT exam, not both. Should I try to take the other exam before July 31, 2010? *OR* I have taken the ISCW (or ONT) course, but not the exam. Should I try to take the exam before July 31, 2010?
A: If you can pass both the ISCW and ONT exams by July 31, 2010, before they are retired, you will not have to take the TSHOOT exam to achieve certification. If, on the other hand, you do not think that you have a good chance of passing both exams before July 31, 2010, then you should focus your time on preparing for the TSHOOT exam, as you will not have an opportunity to retake ISCW or ONT after July 31, 2010. Do not waste your time and money trying to pass just one of the exams, because one is not enough to waive the requirement to pass TSHOOT beyond July 31, 2010.
Q: What is the CCNP TSHOOT beta exam? Does it count toward CCNP certification?
A: The TSHOOT beta is an early release of the TSHOOT certification exam, which is used to determine the predictive ability of the exam questions. It is the same length and covers the same topics as the final exam. Candidates who pass a beta exam receive full credit, however scores on beta exams are not immediately available. Candidates must wait six to eight weeks, until the beta analysis is complete, to receive their scores. The TSHOOT beta exam will be released sometime around February 16 and be available through March 26, 2010 at a discounted price of $50 USD. As an incentive to schedule, the first 150 beta exams completed will be provided free of charge. Candidates may attempt a beta exam only one time. Scores are expected to be released at the end of April.
Q: What is being changed on the CCNP curriculum?
A. The recommended CCNP curriculum now consists of the following three courses and associated e-learning:
• ROUTE v1.0 - Implementing Cisco IP Routing is a five-day, instructor-led course with 7.5 hours of related e-learning. It is designed for network engineers who have at least one year of professional work experience, and who are ready to advance their skills and work independently on complex network solutions. Students will learn to plan, configure, and verify the implementation of complex enterprise LAN and WAN routing solutions using a range of routing protocols. Course also covers configuration of secure routing solutions to support branch offices and mobile workers.
• SWITCH v1.0 - Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks is a five-day, instructor-led course. It is designed for network engineers who have at least one year of professional work experience, and who are ready to advance their skills and work independently on complex network solutions. Students will learn to plan, configure, and verify the implementation of complex enterprise switching solutions using Cisco Campus Enterprise Architecture. Course also covers secure integration of VLANs, WLANs, voice, and video into campus networks. (There is no e-learning associated with the SWITCH course.)
• TSHOOT v1.0 - Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks is a five-day, instructor-led course with 9.5 hours of related e-learning. It is designed for network engineers who have at least one year of professional work experience, and who are ready to advance their skills and work independently on complex network solutions. Students will learn to plan and perform regular maintenance on complex enterprise routed and switched networks, as well as to use technology-based practices and a systematic ITIL-compliant approach to perform network troubleshooting. Extensive labs provide for hands-on learning and reinforcement of troubleshooting skills.
Q: Where can I find training on the security, voice and wireless topics removed from CCNP?
A. Skills related to the configuration and verification of security, voice and wireless solutions are now provided in courses focused on those topics and described in the specialized CCNA certifications developed for network professionals whose jobs are focused in those areas. See CCNA Security, CCNA Voice and CCNA Wireless on the Cisco Learning Network.
Q: Are there any self-study materials that are recommended to prepare for the new exams?
A: Cisco Press offers a series of CCNP related books and study materials, as it has in the past. Titles include CCNP Exam Certification Guides (for exam preparation), CCNP Portable Command Guides (CCNP-level commands), and CCNP Self Study Guides (for learning material that is covered in CCNP courses). Candidates should also check the Cisco Learning Network for other relevant learning materials, book lists, online documentation, and other resources.
Q. Where can I take the new CCNP exams?
A: CCNP exams are available through all authorized VUE testing centers. To register for an exam, go towww.vue.com/cisco/.

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CCIP Syllabus

By admin - Last updated: Wednesday, March 3, 2010

CCIP Syllabus
CCIP® Certification
Cisco Certified Internetwork Professional (CCIP®) validates advanced knowledge and skills required to manage service provider infrastructures. With a CCIP certification, a network professional working in a service provider organization demonstrates competencies in infrastructure IP networking solutions. The CCIP curriculum includes IP routing, IP QoS, BGP, and MPLS.


Prerequisites:Valid CCNA certification
Exams & Recommended Training
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Cisco Certified Security Professional Recertification:Cisco professional level certifications (CCNP Wireless, CCNP, CCDP, CCSP, CCVP, and CCIP) are valid for three years. To recertify, pass any 642 exam that is part of the professional level curriculum or any CCIE/CCDE written exam before the certification expiration date.Achieving or recertifying any of the certifications above automatically extends your active Associate and Professional level certification(s) up to the point of expiration of the last certification achieved.

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CCDP Syllabus

By admin - Last updated: Wednesday, March 3, 2010

CCDP Syllabus
CCDP® Certification:The CCDP certification indicates advanced knowledge of intelligent network design concepts and principles.A CCDP credentialed network professional can discuss, design, and create advanced addressing and routing, security, network management, data center, and IP multicast complex multi-layered enterprise architectures that include virtual private networking and wireless domains.


Prerequisites: Valid CCNA and CCDA
Exams & Recommended Training
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Cisco Certified Security Professional Recertification:Cisco professional level certifications (CCNP Wireless, CCNP, CCDP, CCSP, CCVP, and CCIP) are valid for three years. To recertify, pass any 642 exam that is part of the professional level curriculum or any CCIE/CCDE written exam before the certification expiration date.Achieving or recertifying any of the certifications above automatically extends your active Associate and Professional level certification(s) up to the point of expiration of the last certification achieved.

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New CCNP Syllabus

By admin - Last updated: Wednesday, March 3, 2010

New CCNP Syllabus
Important information regarding CCNP courses and exams: Cisco has redesigned its CCNP courses and exams to reflect the evolving job tasks of enterprise network engineers. As a result, the BSCI, BCMSN, ISCW and ONT courses and exams will be retired and replaced with new CCNP courses and exams.
Until July 31, 2010 candidates have four different paths to CCNP certification.
Path 1: Candidates already in the process of certifying may use their passing scores on ISCW and ONT. This path is not recommended for candidates who have not yet attempted ISCW or ONT.

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Path 2: Same as Path 1, except that the single Composite exam is used instead of the individual BSCI and BCMSN. Again, this path is not recommended for candidates who have not yet attempted ISCW or ONT.

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Path 3: Candidates substitue the new TSHOOT exam (or TSHOOT beta exam) for ISCW and ONT, passing three exams to complete CCNP certification. This is the recommended path for candidates who have not yet taken the ISCW or ONT courses or exams and will become the only available path after July 31, 2010.

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Path 4:
This is the recommended path for candidates who have passed the Composite exam but not ISCW or ONT. This path can also be used by candidates who will be ready to take (and pass) the Composite exam before July 31, 2010. Please note that candidates who fail an exam attempt must wait five (5) calendar days, beginning the day after the failed attempt, before they may retest for the same exam.

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642-832 TSHOOT Exam Topics

By admin - Last updated: Wednesday, March 3, 2010

642-832 TSHOOT Exam Topics

Exam Description

Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Switched Networks (TSHOOT 642-832) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco Certified Network Professional CCNP®, certification. The TSHOOT 642-832 exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to (1) plan and perform regular maintenance on complex enterprise routed and switched networks and (2) use technology-based practices and a systematic ITIL-compliant approach to perform network troubleshooting.

Exam Topics

The following information provides general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Maintain and monitor network performance

Troubleshoot Multi Protocol system networks

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642-813 SWITCH Exam Topics

By admin - Last updated: Wednesday, March 3, 2010

642-813 SWITCH Exam Topics

Exam Description

Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH 642-813) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco Certified Network Professional CCNP®, and Cisco Certified Design Professional CCDP® certifications. The SWITCH 642-813 exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to to plan, configure and verify the implementation of complex enterprise switching solutions using Cisco’s Campus Enterprise Architecture. The SWITCH exam also covers secure integration of VLANs, WLANs, voice and video into campus networks.

Exam Topics

The following information provides general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Implement VLAN based solution, given a network design and a set of requirements

Implement a Security Extension of a Layer 2 solution, given a network design and a set of requirements

Implement Switch based Layer 3 services, given a network design and a set of requirements

Prepare infrastructure to support advanced services

Implement High Availability, given a network design and a set of requirements

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642-902 ROUTE Exam Topics

By admin - Last updated: Wednesday, March 3, 2010

642-902 ROUTE Exam Topics

Implementing Cisco IP Routing

Exam Description

The Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE 642-902) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco Certified Network Professional CCNP®, Cisco Certified Internetwork Professional CCIP®, and Cisco Certified Design Professional CCDP® certifications. The ROUTE 642-902 exam will certify that the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills necessary to use advanced IP addressing and routing in implementing scalable and secure Cisco ISR routers connected to LANs and WANs. The exam also covers configuration of secure routing solutions to support branch offices and mobile workers.

Exam Topics

The following information provides general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Implement an EIGRP based solution, given a network design and a set of requirements

Implement a multi-area OSPF Network, given a network design and a set of requirements

Implement an eBGP based solution, given a network design and a set of requirements

Implement an IPv6 based solution, given a network design and a set of requirements

Implement an IPv4 or IPv6 based redistribution solution, given a network design and a set of requirements

Implement Layer 3 Path Control Solution

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642-892 part 4

By admin - Last updated: Saturday, February 27, 2010

121.What is the objective of setting the VTP mode to transparent ?
A.Transparent mode will only forward messages and advertisements, not add them to their own database.
B.Transparent mode makes a switch dynamically secure.
C.Transparent mode will forward messages and advertisements and add them to their own database.
D.Transparent mode will not forward messages and advertisements.
Correct:A
122.Which method can be used to prevent VLAN hopping?
A.password combinations.
B.Configure ACLs.
C.Enforce username
D.Configure all frames with two 802.1Q headers.
Correct:D
123.Which one of the following commands will display EIGRP packets sent and received, as well as statistics on hello packets, updates, queries, replies, and acknowledgments?
A.debug ip eigrp
B.show ip eigrp traffic
C.show ip eigrp interfaces
D.debug eigrp packets
Correct:B
124.Which two statements are true if this topology were configured with the NBMA OSPF network type?(choose two)
A.There are three adjacencies.
B.-B must be the DR.
C.-A must be the DR.
D.There are four adjacencies.
E.Any router may be the DR.
F.-C must be the DR.
G.-D must be the DR.
Correct:A C
125.For the following protocols, which one enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address?
A.IRDP
B.Proxy ARP
C.HSRP
D.VRRP
Correct:D
126.Which statement correctly describes IP telephony calls?
A.Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
B.A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
C.The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
D.The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.
Correct:D
127.Which description is correct about VTP?
A.Changing the VTP version on one switch changes all switches in a domain.
B.All switches are VTP clients by default.
C.If you change the VTP version on one switch, you must change the version on all switches.
D.VTP is on by default with a domain name of Cisco on all Cisco switches.
Correct:A
128.How does an attacker gather information when he is using switch spoofing to perform VLAN hopping,?
A.The attacking station uses DTP to negotiate trunking with a switch port and captures all traffic that is allowed on the trunk
B.The attacking station uses VTP to collect VLAN information that is sent out and then tags itself with the domain information in order to capture the data.
C.The attacking station tags itself with all usable VLANs to capture data that is passed through the switch, regardless of the VLAN to which the data belongs.
D.The attacking station will generate frames with two 802.1Q headers to cause the switch to forward the frames to a VLAN that would be inaccessible to the attacker through legitimate means.
Correct:A
129.Which two statements accurately describe the output from the show standby vlan 50 command displayed in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A.The command standby 1 preempt was added to -S.
B.-S is load sharing traffic in VLAN 50.
C.Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.1 will have their traffic sent to 192.168.1.11 even after -S becomes available again.
D.Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.2 will have their traffic sent to -S.
Correct:A B
130.When learning a new route, in the event that a received LSA is not found in the topological database , what will an internal OSPF router do?
A.The LSA is flooded immediately out of all the OSPF interfaces, except the interface from which the LSA was received.
B.The sequence numbers are checked, and if the LSA is valid, it is entered into the topology database.
C.The LSA is dropped and a message is sent to the transmitting router.
D.The LSA is placed in the topological database and an acknowledgement is sent to the transmitting router.
Correct:A
131.Which option is correct about the configuration of ISL trunks?
A.ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
B.A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C.A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.
D.All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
Correct:B
132.Which three statements related to IP multicast address are correct? (Choose three.)
A.Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are source multicast addresses for OSPF routers.
B.Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
C.Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
D.The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.
Correct:B C D
133.What happens to a network if no loop avoidance schemes are put in place? (Choose two.)
A.IP routing will cause flapping on a serial link.
B.Broadcast storms.
C.Multiple frame copies.
D.Faster convergence times.
Correct:B C
134.Which three statements best state EIGRP route summarization? (Choose three.)
A.The ip summary-address eigrp command generates a default route with an administrative distance of 90.
B.Manual route summarization is configured on the interface.
C.The ip summary-address eigrp command generates a default route with an administrative distance of 5.
D.When manual summarization is configured, the router immediately creates a route that points to null0 interface.
Correct:B C D
135.Which two statements are correct concerning WLAN client utility? (Choose two.)
A.The Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can both be enabled at the same time to setup WLAN client cards.
B.The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to enable or disable the adapter radio and to configure LEAP authentication with dynamic WEP.
C.In a Windows XP environment, a client adapter can only be configured and managed with the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager.
D.The Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be configured to display the Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) icon in the Windows system tray.
Correct:B D
136.If a router has an OSPF priority set to 0, what does it mean?
A.A router with the OSPF priority set to 0 is one that will switch OSPF packets before it does anything else.
B.A router with the OSPF priority set to 0 is one that cannot participate in the election of a DR. It can become neither a DR nor a BDR.
C.A router with the OSPF priority set to 0 is one that can participate in the election of a DR. It has the highest priority.
D.A router with the OSPF priority set to 0 is one that cannot participate in the election of a DR, but it can become a BDR.
Correct:D
137.An IPv6 overlay tunnel is a requirement for communicating with isolated IPv6 networks across an IPv4 infrastructure. Currently, there are five types of IPv6 overlay tunnel. Which three statements are true about IPv6 overlay tunnel? (Choose three.)
A.Cisco IOS supports manual, generic routing encapsulation (GRE), IPv6-compatible, 4to6, and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) overlay tunneling mechanisms.
B.Overlay tunnels can be configured between border routers or between a border router and a host capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
C.Cisco IOS supports manual, generic routing encapsulation (GRE), IPv4-compatible, 6to4, and Intra-Site Automatic Tunnel Addressing Protocol (ISATAP) overlay tunneling mechanisms.
D.Overlay tunneling encapsulates IPv6 packets in IPv4 packets for delivery across an IPv4 infrastructure.
Correct:B C D
138.You work as a network engineer at .com, study the exhibit carefully. EIGRP is enabled on all routers on the network. What additional configuration is required for the routers connected over the Frame Relay multipoint interfaces to compensate for a low-speed NBMA connection?
A.Configure the EIGRP hold time on all Frame Relay interfaces to 15 seconds.
B.Configure the EIGRP hold time on all Frame Relay interfaces to 180 seconds.
C.Configure the bandwidth on all EIGRP Frame Relay interfaces to the committed information rate (CIR).
D.Configure the bandwidth on all EIGRP Frame Relay interfaces to the lowest CIR multiplied by the number of PVCs for the multipoint connection.
Correct:D
139.Which is the STP default priority on a switch?
A.32768
B.10
C.3276
D.100
Correct:A
140.Which two descriptions are correct based on the exhibit below? (Choose two.)
A.Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
B.All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
C.Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D.All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
Correct:C D
141.Study this exhibit carefully. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode. Host B and Host F are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which option is correct?
A.Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B.The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.
C.Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D.Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree.
Correct:D
142.Which command will you use when you want to set up an interface to use a DR, but do not want to have to manually identify neighbors.?
A.Router(config-if)# ip ospf network broadcast
B.Router(config-if)# ip ospf network point-to-point
C.Router(config-if)# ip ospf network point-to-multipoint non-broadcast
D.Router(config-if)# ip ospf network point-to-multipoint
Correct:A
143.Which two statements correctly describe HSRP priority? (Choose two.)
A.The default priority of a router is zero (0).
B.Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
C.The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D.When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router.
Correct:C D
144.Which description is correct concerning the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)?
A.Authentication, security, and mobility are handled by the access point.
B.The control traffic between the client and the access point is encapsulated with the LWAPP.
C.Data traffic between the client and the access point is encapsulated with LWAPP.
D.Real-time frame exchange is accomplished within the access point.
Correct:D
145.Which item best describes trunk links?
A.You can set trunk links on any 10Mbps, 100Mbps, and 1000Mbps ports.
B.They are configured by default on all switch ports.
C.They work only with a type of Ethernet network and not with Token Ring, FDDI, or ATM.
D.You must clear the unwanted VLANs by hand.
Correct:D
146.Which two characteristics are of the IS-IS protocol instead of OSPF? (Choose two.)
A.supports demand circuit routing
B.provides routing support for multiple network layer protocols
C.utilizes SPF algorithm
D.forms adjacencies with all neighbors
Correct:B D
147.Which two statements best describe the operation of voice VLANs on a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)
A.Enabling voice VLANs enables the switch to create multiple queues for traffic that is entering a port.
B.Enabling voice VLANs enables the switch to forward frames with a specific 802.1P marking.
C.When voice VLANs are configured on a trunk link, UplinkFast must also be enabled.
D.When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
Correct:B D
148.Study the following configuration, which areas will have default routes automatically transimitted to the routers in the respective areas?
A.Area 3
B.Neither area
C.Area 2
D.Both areas
Correct:D
149.Study the exhibit carefully. Which protocol establishes an optimal path to the root in a wireless mesh network?
A.802.1Q WLAN trunking protocol
B.Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)
C.Layer 2 Roaming (IAPP)
D.Adaptive Wireless Path (AWP)
Correct:D
150.Which IPv6 description is correct?
A.Only one IPv6 address can be assigned to each interface.
B.Only one IPv6 address is assigned per node.
C.Each host can autoconfigure its address without the aid of a DHCP server.
Correct:C

Filed in CCNP • Tags: ,

642-892 part 3

By admin - Last updated: Saturday, February 27, 2010

61.When the passive-interface command is used on a router, which two routing protocols will go on to receive routing updates on an interface configured as passive? (Choose two.)
A.EIGRP
B.RIP
C.RIPv2
D.OSPF
Correct:B C
62.In the hardware address 0000.0c07.ac0a what does 07.ac stand for?
A.HSRP group number
B.HSRP router number
C.HSRP well-known physical MAC address
D.HSRP well-known virtual MAC address
Correct:D
63.Which command will be used to see the packet types sent and received and the statistics on routing decisions?
A.show ip eigrp traffic
B.debug ip eigrp packets
C.debug ip eigrp traffic
D.show eigrp events
Correct:A
64.Examine the exhibit below. What is the channel-group 1 mode desirable command used for?
A.enables Etherchannel only
B.enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected
C.enables PAgP unconditionally
D.enables LACP unconditionally
Correct:C
65.Study the exhibit carefully. In order to locate the wireless LAN controller (WLC), what type of message will the lightweight access point (LAP) use?
A.The LAP will send out a DNS request. In return, the DNS server will provide the WLC domain name.
B.The LAP will send out a Layer 3 LWAPP discovery request to the WLC on the wireless network.
C.The LAP will send out a Layer 2 LWAPP discovery request to the WLC on the wireless network.
D.The LAP will send out a DHCP request. In return, the DHCP server will provide the IP addresses for the LAP and the WLC.
Correct:B
66.Which IEEE specification is for Gigabit Ethernet?
A.802.3u
B.802.3
C.802.2
D.802.3z
Correct:D
67.Which two conclusions can be derived from the debug ip igmp output provided in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A.Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) is enabled for 224.0.1.40.
B.Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) is enabled for 192.168.9.4.
C.Router received an IGMP report version 1 from host 192.168.9.1.
D.The router sent an IGMP version 2 query out interface Ethernet1 at multicast address 224.0.0.1.
Correct:C D
68.For the following options ,which two are the correct reductions of the IPv6 address 2001:0d02:0000:0000:0014:0000:0000:0095? (Choose two.)
A.FF::0014:0:0:0095
B.2001:0d02:::0014:0:0:0095
C.2001:d02::14:0:0:95
D.2001:d02:0:0:14::95
Correct:C D
69.Which two statements are correct for EIGRP to form a neighbor relationship? (Choose two)
A.The holddown timer must be the same.
B.The K-values of the metric must be the same on both routers.
C.The autonomous system number must be the same on both routers.
D.Authentication must be enabled.
Correct:B C
70.Which three causes are of BGP neighbor establishment to fail? (Choose three.)
A.There is an access list blocking all TCP traffic between the two BGP neighbors.
B.The EBGP neighbor ebgp-multihop option is set to the default value.
C.The BGP update interval is different between the two BGP neighbors.
D.The BGP neighbor is referencing an incorrect autonomous system number in its neighbor statement.
Correct:A B D
71.Which three statements best describe STP timers? (Choose three.)
A.STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU.
B.A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only consider the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving.
C.On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a lower value to decrease the load on the switch CPU.
D.If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least be changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge.
Correct:A B D
72.Which two statements correctly describe the distribution layer switches? (Choose two.)
A.The distribution layer is the aggregation point for multiple access switches.
B.The switches deployed at this layer must be able to handle connecting individual desktop devices to the internetwork.
C.This is where users gain access to the internetwork.
D.The distribution layer can participate in MLS and handle a router processor.
Correct:A D
73.Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) is an Internet Layer protocol for packet-switched internetworks. In IPv6, the interfaces running OSPF can be configured with multiple address prefixes. Which statement correctly describes the IPv6 addresses that can be included into the OSPF process?
A.Specific addresses cannot be selected for importation into the OSPF process
B.Specific addresses can be selected using a prefix list.
C.Specific addresses can be selected using an ACL.
D.Specific addresses can be selected using a route map.
Correct:A
74.Observe the exhibit carefully. Router -R is trying to establish BGP neighbor relationships with routers 1 and 3. Which two descriptions are correct about the information presented in the exhibit,? (Choose two.)
A.-R has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.1 does not.
B.-R has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.1 has an incorrect password set.
C.-R has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.5 does not.
D.-R has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.5 has an incorrect password set.
Correct:A D
75.What will the debug ip eigrp summary command desplay?
A.A summary of the contents of the neighbor database
B.A summary of the topology database
C.The process taken when a change is made in a summary route
D.A summary of EIGRP activity
Correct:C
76.What is the purpose of the global configuration command ip arp inspection vlan 10-12,15?
A.discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings on trusted ports
B.validates outgoing ARP requests for interfaces configured on VLAN 10, 11, 12, or 15
C.intercepts, logs, and discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings
D.intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports
Correct:C
77.You are a network technician at .com, study the exhibit carefully. The command spanning-tree guard root is configured on interface Gi0/0 on both switch S2 and S5. The global configuration command spanning-tree uplinkfast has been configured on both switch S2 and S5. The link between switch S4 and S5 fails. Will Host A be able to reach Host B?
A.No. Traffic will loop back and forth between switch S5 and S2.
B.Yes. Traffic can pass either from switch S6 to S3 to S2 to S1, or, from switch S6 to S5 to S2 to S1.
C.No. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S5 and dead-end at interface Gi 0/0.
D.Yes. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S3 to S2 to S1.
Correct:D
78.Which two descriptions are correct about the STP blocked state of a port? (Choose two)
A.No frames are transmitted or received on the blocked port.
B.Frames are sent or received on the blocked port.
C.BPDUs are still received on the blocked port.
D.BPDUs are sent and received on the blocked port.
Correct:A C
79.Which statement accurately describes 6to4 tunneling?
A.Hosts and routers inside a 6to4 site will need a special code.
B.IPv4 traffic is encapsulated with an IPv6 header.
C.The edge routers can use any locally configured IPv6 address.
D.An edge router must use IPv6 address of 2002::/16 in its prefix.
Correct:D
80.VLAN IDs: 20 21 IP Addresses 172.16.200.1/24 172.16.39.1/24 You task is described as follows : Configure the VTP information with the distribution layer switch as the VTP server. Configure the VTP information with the access layer switch as a VTP client. Configure VLANs on the distribution layer switch. Configure inter-VLAN routing on the distribution layer switch. Commands that use the [Control] or [Escape] keys are not supported and are not necessary to complete this simulation. The help command does not display all commands of the help system. The help supports the first level of help system and selected lower layers.
A.DLswitch#conf t DLswitch(config)#vtp mode server DLswitch(config)#vtp domain CISCO DLswitch(config)#vlan 20 DLswitch(config)#vlan 21 DLswitch(config)#int vlan 20 DLswitch(if-config)#ip add 172.64.200.1 255.255.255.0 DLswitch(if-config)#no shut DLswitch(if-config)#int vlan 21 DLswitch(if-config)#ip add 192.162.39.1 255.255.255.0 DLswitch(if-config)#no shut DLswitch(if-config)#exit DLswitch#ip routing DLswitch#copy run start ALswitch#conf t ALswitch(config)#vtp mode client ALswitch(config)#vtp domain CISCO ALswitch#copy run start
Correct:A
81.Which of the following information is contained in the neighbor table ?
A.The feasible distance between neighbors
B.The administrative distance
C.The metric of neighbors
D.The status of the links between neighbors
Correct:D
82.Study the exhibit carefully. Which description is correct concerning where trust boundaries should be established in a network?
A.Endpoint 1 is the optimal place to establish a trust boundary. Endpoints 2 and 3 are acceptable places to establish a trust boundary.
B.Endpoint 2 is the only acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
C.Endpoint 2 is the optimal place to establish a trust boundary. Endpoints 1 and 3 are acceptable places to establish a trust boundary.
D.Endpoints 1 and 2 are optimal places to establish a trust boundary. Endpoint 3 is an acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
Correct:D
83.On the basis of the exhibit below. Host A has sent an ARP message to the default gateway IP address 10.10.10.1. Which description is correct?
A.1 will reply with the MAC address of the next AVF.
B.Because of the invalid timers that are configured, 2 will not reply.
C.2 will reply with the IP address of the next AVF.
D.2 will reply with the MAC address of the next AVF
Correct:D
84.Which two ways can an administrator configure VLAN memberships? (Choose two.)
A.VTP database
B.Static
C.Dynamic
D.DHCP server
Correct:B C
85.For the following options, which two provide intra-area routing services? (Choose two.)
A.L1 IS
B.L2 IS
C.L2 ES
D.L1/L2 IS
Correct:A D
86.Study the exhibit carefully. This network is running IS-IS. Router 3 is inside Cloud#1. From the output on 1, which two descriptions are correct? (Choose two.)
A.The SNPA for 2 is the source data link address that is used to transmit frames to 1.
B.Because it is running IS-IS in IP-only mode, 1 will not transmit CLNS packets.
C.The NET for 2 will be 49.0150.0019.06b7.fd5f.00.
D.IP routing updates between 3 and 1 will be CLNS datagrams that are encapsulated by HDLC.
Correct:A D
87.Which of the following commands can be used to show that EIGRP is able to contact neighbors?
A.debug ip eigrp events
B.debug ip eigrp packets
C.debug ip eigrp
D.debug ip eigrp traffic
Correct:B
88.Which three statements best describe WLAN? (Choose three.)
A.A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated.
B.A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN.
C.Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP.
D.Another term for infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS).
Correct:A B C
89.In order to prevent a multi-homed autonomous system from becoming a transit system ,what technique should be used on BGP edge routers?
A.Only advertise networks externally if they have been discovered via internal BGP.
B.Advertise with a high MED value all networks that are discovered via external BGP.
C.Remove the AS-Path information on all routes in the BGP table prior to advertising externally.
D.Use an outgoing distribution list to filter all networks not originating from inside the autonomous system.
Correct:D
90.Which options are correct concerning the Canonical Format Indicator (CFI)? (Choose two.)
A.It is a 1-bit field that is always a 0 if running an 802.3 frame.
B.The CFI field was originally designed to be used for Token Ring VLANs, but it was never implemented except for some proprietary Token Ring LANs.
C.It is used with FDDI trunk ports only.
D.It is not used on any switch but the 4000 series.
Correct:A B
91.Which three statements about HSRP are correct on the basis of the debug output that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
A.The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
B.The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured.
C.The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
D.The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address.
Correct:A B D
92.Study the exhibit carefully. What should be taken into consideration when configuring the static WEP keys on the wireless client adapter by use of the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU)?
A.Before the client adapter WEP key is generated, all wireless infrastructure devices (such as access points, servers, etc.) must be properly configured for LEAP authentication.
B.The client adapter WEP key should be generated by the AP and forwarded to the client adapter before the client adapter can establish communication with the wireless network.
C.In infrastructure mode the client adapter WEP key must match the WEP key used by the access point. In ad hoc mode all client WEP keys within the wireless network must match each other.
D.The client adapter WEP key should be generated by the authentication server and forwarded to the client adapter before the client adapter can establish communication with the wireless network.
Correct:C
93.Which factors can affect the scaling of EIGRP ?(choose four)
A.The amount of information sent between neighbors
B.The number of routers that receive updates
C.The distance between neighboring routers
D.The number of alternative paths to remote networks
Correct:A B C D
94.Online Incorporated is an internet game provider. The game service network had recently added an additional switch block with multiple VLANs configured. Unfortunately, system administrators neglected to document the spanning-tree topology during configuration. For baseline purpose, you will be required to identify the spanning-tree topology for the switch block. Using the output of “show spanning-tree” command on switch SW-C and the provided physical topology, answer the following questions:
A.24623.000f.34f5.0138
B.32768.000d.bd03.0380
C.32769.000d.65db.0102
D.32815.000d.db03.0380
Correct:A
95.Online Incorporated is an internet game provide. The game service network had recently added an additional switch block with multiple VLANs configured. Unfortunately, system administrators neglected to document the spanning-tree topology during configuration. For baseline purpose, you will be required to identify the spanning-tree topology for the switch block. Using the output of ???show spanning-tree??? command on switch SW-C and the provided physical topology, answer the following questions:
A.blocking
B.discarding
C.learning
D.listening
Correct:A
96.Online Incorporated is an internet game provide. The game service network had recently added an additional switch block with multiple VLANs configured. Unfortunately, system administrators neglected to document the spanning-tree topology during configuration. For baseline purpose, you will be required to identify the spanning-tree topology for the switch block. Using the output of ???show spanning-tree??? command on switch SW-C and the provided physical topology, answer the following questions:
A.32768.000d.bd03.0380
B.32769.000d.65db.0102
C.32874.000d.db03.0380
D.32815.000d.db03.0380
Correct:B
97.Online Incorporated is an internet game provide. The game service network had recently added an additional switch block with multiple VLANs configured. Unfortunately, system administrators neglected to document the spanning-tree topology during configuration. For baseline purpose, you will be required to identify the spanning-tree topology for the switch block. Using the output of ???show spanning-tree??? command on switch SW-C and the provided physical topology, answer the following questions:
A.PVST+
B.PVRST
C.MSTP/IEEE 802.1s
D.STP/IEEE 802.1D
Correct:A
98.Online Incorporated is an internet game provide. The game service network had recently added an additional switch block with multiple VLANs configured. Unfortunately, system administrators neglected to document the spanning-tree topology during configuration. For baseline purpose, you will be required to identify the spanning-tree topology for the switch block. Using the output of ???show spanning-tree??? command on switch SW-C and the provided physical topology, answer the following questions:
A.alternate port
B.designated port
C.root port
D.nondesignated port
Correct:B
99.Which statement accurately describes BPDUs?
A.BPDUs are used to set the bridge ID of a switch.
B.BPDUs are used to send configuration messages by using multicast frames.
C.BPDUs are used to send configuration messages by using IP packets.
D.BPDUs are used to set the cost of STP links.
Correct:B
100.What is an adjacency in OSPF?
A.Routers connected across a WAN but not directly connected, for example Frame Relay, are considered adjacent to each other.
B.An adjacency is the state that two neighbors can achieve after they have synchronized their OSPF databases.
C.An adjacency is when another router has received an LSA from another area. The areas are adjacent.
D.An adjacent router is one that has received a hello packet from a neighbor.
Correct:B
101.Intermediate system to intermediate system (IS-IS), is a protocol used by network devices (routers) to determine the best way to forward datagrams or packets through a packet-based network .Which two descriptions concerning the IS-IS routing protocol are correct? (Choose two.)
A.In the IS-IS routing domain, routers may have adjacencies with other routers on multipoint links.
B.Level 2 routers are equivalent to ABRs in OSPF and learn about paths both within and between areas.
C.Level 1 routers learn about paths within the areas that the routers are connected to.
D.IS-IS metrics are based on delay, bandwidth, reliability, load, and MTU.
Correct:A C
102.A client is looking for an access point (AP). What is the correct process order that the client and access point go through to create a connection?
A.probe request/response, authentication request/response, association request/response
B.association request/response, probe request/response, authentication request/response
C.association request/response, authentication request/response, probe request/response
D.probe request/response, association request/response, authentication request/response
Correct:A
103.Which Cisco standard encapsulates a frame and even adds a new FCS field?
A.ISL
B.802.3u
C.802.1Q
D.802.3z
Correct:A
104.Which two statements are correct based on the information provided in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A.The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the ISP router.
B.The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 50 command.
C.The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 75 command.
D.When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to 1 because of the lower MED value of 1.
Correct:A D
105.Fundamentally, QoS enables you to provide better service to certain flows. Observe the exhibit. Which switch interface configuration command would automatically configure quality of service (QoS) for voice over IP (VoIP) within a QoS domain?
A.auto qos voip cisco-phone
B.switchport priority extend trust
C.mls qos trust
D.switchport priority extend cos 7
Correct:A
106.Which type of OSPF network can a workaround used to account for the lack of multicast and broadcast support inherent in the default behavior of Cisco router interfaces in a nonbroadcast environment?
A.Nonbroadcast multi-access
B.Broadcast multi-access
C.Point-to-multipoint
D.Point-to-point
Correct:C
107.Which statement is correct on the basis of the configuration on switch 1 presented in the exhibit?
A.The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
B.The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 48.
C.The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to 56.
D.Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
Correct:D
108.Which three examples are of call control signaling? (Choose three.)
A.MGCP
B.G.729
C.H.323
D.SIP
Correct:A C D
109.When a frame is received on an interface and the destination hardware address is unknown or not in the filter table, what does a switch do?
A.Sends back a message to the originating station asking for a name resolution
B.Forwards the switch to the first available link
C.Floods the network with the frame looking for the device
D.Drops the frame
Correct:C
110.Which three statements are correct about the exhibited output? (Choose three.)
A.-R is configured with the ip summary-address command.
B.The route to 10.2.0.0
C.16 was redistributed into EIGRP.
D.-R is configured with the variance command.
Correct:A C D
111.What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the debug output provided in the diagram?
A.The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B.Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router 172.16.11.111.
C.The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
D.The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
Correct:A
112.When an interface shows that it is in the init state, what is the meaning?
A.That this is a point-to-multipoint interface and is waiting to connect to the WAN cloud
B.That a router sees a hello packet from a neighbor but the packet does not contain its own router ID
C.Seen only on broadcast links, it shows that the election of the DR is in progress
D.That an interface is coming online, determining the IP address and OSPF parameters
Correct:B
113.Which description is correct about the exhibit below?
A.All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
B.IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
C.IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
D.All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.
Correct:D
114.You are a network technician at .com, look at the following options. How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A.The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.
B.The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
C.The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D.The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
Correct:C
115.How to determine the root port on a switch?
A.By sending and receiving BPDUs between switches. The fastest BPDU transfer rate on an interface becomes the root port.
B.The switch determines the lowest cost of a link to the root bridge.
C.The root bridge broadcasts the bridge ID, and the receiving bridge determines what interface this broadcast was received on and makes this interface the root port.
D.The switch determines the highest cost of a link to the root bridge.
Correct:B
116.Based on the configuration displayed in the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A.IGMP version 2 is being used.
B.CGMP version 2 is being used.
C.The switch will use sparse mode first, dense mode second.
D.A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.
Correct:D
117.Which two statements best describe using IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously on a network segment? (Choose two.)
A.Hosts can be configured to receive both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses via DHCP.
B.IPv4 and IPv6 addresses can be simultaneously assigned to a host but not to a router interface.
C.IPv6 allows a host to create its own IPv6 address that will allow it to communicate to other devices on a network configured via DHCP. IPv4 does not provide a similar capability for hosts.
D.Host configuration options for IPv4 can be either statically assigned or assigned via DHCP. Host configuration options for IPv6 can be statically assigned only.
Correct:A C
118.Which command can be used to set up a newly created point-to-point subinterface to use the OSPF point-to-point network type ?
A.No additional commands required
B.Router(config-subif)# ip ospf network point-to-point
C.Router(config-subif)# ip ospf network point-to-multipoint non-broadcast
D.Router(config-subif)# ip ospf network point-to-multipoint
E.Router(config-subif)# ip ospf network non-broadcast
Correct:A
119.On the basis of the information displayed in the exhibit, how will voice traffic from the phone and data traffic from the -PC be handled by 1?
A.The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress voice and data traffic that comes into the switch port.
B.The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress data traffic. Voice traffic will be marked at the switch port with the default CoS value.
C.The switch port will perform marking for the ingress voice and data traffic by using the default CoS value at the switch port.
D.The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress voice traffic. Data traffic will be marked at the switch port with the default CoS value.
Correct:A
120.What will the IPv6 address FF02::2 be used for?
A.all routers in an autonomous system
B.all routers in a local segment
C.all hosts in a local segment
D.all hosts in a particular multicast group
Correct:B

Filed in CCNP • Tags: ,

642-892 part 2

By admin - Last updated: Saturday, February 27, 2010

31.Which three descriptions are correct concerning the diagram below? (Choose three.)
A.A trunk link will be formed.
B.Only VLANs 1-1001 will travel across the trunk link.
C.The native VLAN for -B is vlan 1.
D.DTP packets are sent from -B.
Correct:A C D
32.Which two statements best describe IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A.An EGP or static routing is required between IBGP neighbors.
B.A full-mesh IBGP requires that neighbor relationships be established between all BGP enabled routers in the autonomous system.
C.The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via EBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
D.The BGP split horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
Correct:B D
33.What is the SONA network infrastructure layer used for?
A.Provide a hierarchical and converged network
B.Provide for accounting and billing services
C.Allow for integration of Service and Network
D.Support dynamic resource allocation
Correct:A
34.For the following options, which statement correctly describes Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM DM) multicast routing?
A.Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterwards, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.
B.PIM DM supports shared distribution trees.
C.The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
D.If a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
Correct:C
35.Which one of the following commands displays statistics on EIGRP hello, updates, queries, replies, and acknowledgments?
A.show ip eigrp topology
B.show ip eigrp traffic
C.show ip eigrp neighbors
D.debug eigrp packets
Correct:B
36.For the following items, which one is usually performed at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)
A.No packet filtering
B.Breaking up of collision domains
C.Access lists, packet filtering, and queuing
D.Routing between VLANs
Correct:C D
37.You work as a network technician at .com,study the exhibit carefully. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode. Recipient A and Recipient B are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which description is correct?
A.Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B.The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C.Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D.Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
Correct:B
38.Look at the following descriptions, which one correctly states utilizing a data network for voice traffic?
A.Voice traffic will require some form of QoS implementation only in congested networks.
B.Network congestion must be totally eliminated to provide proper voice traffic performance.
C.Voice traffic will require some form of QoS mechanisms in most networks.
D.Because voice traffic volume cannot be calculated, network bandwidth requirements must be determined from an existing installation.
Correct:C
39.Which is the best summary on the basis of the addresses 10.1.138.0/27, 10.1.138.64/26, and 10.1.138.32/27?
A.10.1.0.0/16
B.10.1.138.0/24
C.10.0.0.0/8
D.10.1.138.0/25
Correct:D
40.On the basis of this exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are running EIGRP and have converged. Refer to the information presented, which statement is correct?
A.Both outgoing and incoming routing updates on 1 will be permitted because the distribute-list 20 out Serial0/0 command cannot be used with association with the outgoing interface.
B.All incoming routing updates from 2 will be suppressed, but the outgoing updates will continue to be sent.
C.Both outgoing and incoming routing updates on 1 will be stopped because of the passive-interface Serial0/0 configuration statement.
D.All outgoing routing updates from router 1 to router 2 will be suppressed, but the inbound updates will continue to be received.
Correct:C
41.The Feasible Successor is a backup route to a destination which is kept in the Topology Table. Identify three characteristics of EIGRP feasible successors? (Choose three.)
A.A feasible successor is selected by comparing the advertised distance of a non-successor route to the feasible distance of the best route.
B.If the advertised distance of the non-successor route is less than the feasible distance of best route, then that route is identified as a feasible successor.
C.If the successor becomes unavailable, then the feasible successor can be used immediately without recalculating for a lost route.
D.Traffic will be load balanced between feasible successors with the same advertised distance.
Correct:A B C
42.Which three items are also generally performed at the distribution layer? (Choose three.)
A.Broadcast and multicast domain definition
B.Security and network policies
C.Redistribution between routing protocols
D.User access to the network
Correct:A B C
43.Which two statements accurately describe trust boundaries? (Choose two.)
A.Setting trust boundaries at the edge of the network allows intermediate hop devices to administer QoS policies without detailed packet identification.
B.Trust boundaries are configured in the core of the network to provide the most efficient forwarding based upon QoS markings.
C.At the trust boundaries, the untrusted traffic will be marked with a new QoS value appropriate for the policy in place at the point where the traffic entered the campus network.
D.Trust boundaries are used to determine which QoS mechanism will be applied to the traffic.
Correct:A C
44.EIGRP is also remarkably easy to configure and use, as well as remarkably efficient and secure in operation. Observe the exhibit. EIGRP is configured with the default configuration on all routers. Autosummarization is enabled on routers 2 and 3, but it is disabled on router 1. Which two EIGRP routes will be seen in the routing table of router 3? (Choose two.)
A.172.16.0.0/24
B.172.16.10.0/24
C.10.10.10.0/24
D.172.16.0.0/16
Correct:C D
45.Which routing protocol wants to work between autonomous systems?
A.OSPF
B.EIGRP
C.RIP
D.BGP
Correct:D
46.Which statement is correct concerning the information displayed in the exhibit?
A.Wireless clients will first attempt to authenticate with MAC authentication and if this succeeds, EAP authentication will then be performed.
B.Wireless clients will be successfully authenticated only if both their MAC address and EAP key match.
C.Wireless clients will first attempt to authenticate with MAC authentication and if this fails, EAP authentication will be attempted.
D.Wireless clients will attempt EAP authentication first, then MAC authentication.
Correct:C
47.Comparing an IPv4 header with an IPv6 header, which three options are correct? (Choose three.)
A.An IPv4 header includes a checksum. However, an IPv6 header does not include one.
B.An IPv6 header is half the size of an IPv4 header.
C.An IPv6 header has twice as many octets as an IPv4 header.
D.An IPv6 header is simpler and more efficient than an IPv4 header.
Correct:A C D
48.Which statement best describes a port status light on a switch?
A.When a device is connected to a port, the port status LED light comes on and then goes off.
B.It is used to see whether a loop has occurred on the network.
C.When a device is connected to a port, the port status LED light comes on and stays on.
D.It is used to identify RTS signaling.
Correct:C
49.What two conclusions can be drawn from the output provided in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A.The default administrative distance has been changed.
B.IS-IS is not enabled.
C.There are two neighboring routers sending IS-IS routing information.
D.IS-IS is not redistributing any other routing protocols.
Correct:C D
50.You work as a network technician at .com, study the exhibit carefully. Which router configuration command can be given that will restrict router 1 from sharing its routing information with router 2?
A.the eigrp stub connected command on router 2
B.the eigrp stub connected command on router 1
C.the eigrp stub receive-only command on router 2
D.the eigrp stub receive-only command on router 1
Correct:D
51.Which one of the following commands will be used to display the current status of EIGRP neighbors?
A.show ip eigrp adjacencies
B.show ip eigrp neighbors
C.show ip eigrp database
D.show ip eigrp traffic
Correct:B
52.A network administrator want to configure an EIGRP router as a stub router that advertises directly connected and summary routes only. In order to accomplish this, which command must the administrator issue?
A.eigrp stub
B.eigrp stub summary
C.eigrp stub connected static
D.eigrp stub receive-only
Correct:A
53.Look at the following options carefully, then answer my question. A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Adapter CB21AG is inserted into a PC cardbus slot. Both the green status LED and the amber activity LED are blinking slowly. What is the condition of the adapter?
A.The adapter is scanning for the wireless network for which it is configured.
B.The adapter is not receiving power.
C.The adapter is in power save mode.
D.The adapter is associated to an access point or another client.
Correct:D
54.Which IEEE specification is for FastEthernet?
A.802.3z
B.802.3
C.802.3u
D.802.2
Correct:C
55.Which two statements best describe multicast protocol? (Choose two.)
A.Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
B.Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
C.Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
D.Dense mode multicast requires explicit join messages from their members.
Correct:B C
56.Which two statements are correct concerning the exhibit below? (Choose two.)
A.Interface FastEthernet 0/0 was configured with the ipv6 ospf 1 area 1 command.
B.The output was generated by the show ip interface command.
C.The IP address of the backup designated router (BDR) is FE80::205:5FFF:FED3:5808.
D.This is the designated router (DR) on the FastEthernet 0/0 link.
Correct:A C
57.Cisco identifies four main EIGRP components . Choose the two correct components from the following list.(Choose two)
A.Neighbor discovery
B.Areas
C.SPF algorithm
D.RTP
Correct:A D
58.Which two methods can mitigate MAC address flooding attacks? (Choose two.)
A.Implement private VLANs.
B.Implement DHCP snooping.
C.Implement port security.
D.Implement VLAN access maps.
Correct:C D
59.Which statement is true about a MAC address flooding attack?
A.The attacking device spoofs a destination MAC address of a valid host currently in the CAM table. The switch then forwards frames destined for the valid host to the attacking device.
B.The attacking device spoofs a source MAC address of a valid host currently in the CAM table. The switch then forwards frames destined for the valid host to the attacking device.
C.Frames with unique, invalid destination MAC addresses flood the switch and exhaust CAM table space. The result is that new entries cannot be inserted because of the exhausted CAM table space, and traffic is subsequently flooded out all ports.
D.Frames with unique, invalid source MAC addresses flood the switch and exhaust CAM table space. The result is that new entries cannot be inserted because of the exhausted CAM table space, and traffic is subsequently flooded out all ports.
Correct:D
60.Which description is correct about the access layer? (Choose two.)
A.This is where users gain access to the internetwork.
B.The switches deployed at this layer must be able to handle connecting individual desktop devices to the internetwork.
C.It can participate in MLS and handle a router processor.
D.It is the aggregation point for multiple access switches.
Correct:A B

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